Category: Mediaeval Greek

How are Rumi’s poems in Greek?

By: | Post date: 2017-01-12 | Comments: 2 Comments
Posted in categories: Literature, Mediaeval Greek

http://www.opoudjis.net/Play/rumiwalad.html I swear, folks, I am not bribing Khateeb to ask me these questions! So yes. Both Rumi, and his son Sultan Walad, wrote some verses in Greek and in Turkish. That he wrote in Greek is no surprise, given that Rumi means “of Rum = The (former) Roman Empire”, where Rumi settled (Konya). I […]

How many words does the Greek language have?

By: | Post date: 2017-01-05 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Ancient Greek, Linguistics, Mediaeval Greek

I wrote an extensive set of blog posts in 2009 under Ἡλληνιστεύκοντος (read them backwards), trying to deal with this question with a fixed(ish) corpus, that I was responsible for lemmatising: the TLG. It has a whole lot about the distinction between word tokens (individual instances of words), wordforms, and lemmata (dictionary words). It starts […]

What is the history of Greek punctuation?

By: | Post date: 2016-12-19 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Ancient Greek, Mediaeval Greek, Modern Greek, Writing Systems

I have written some pointers about the history of Greek punctuation on my Greek Unicode Issues website: Punctuation. To summarise: The basics of punctuation as we know it in both Latin in Greek were in place by around the 10th century, including commas, periods, and interrogatives. They appear to have developed independently, although they had […]

If I learned modern Greek, would I be able to read the New Testament in its original language?

By: | Post date: 2016-12-18 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Linguistics, Mediaeval Greek, Modern Greek

Like the others said: no. Certainly not the more educated writing, like Paul or Luke. You’d know what was going on, more or less, but you would be liable to be confused, by the syntax or by the false friends. I’ve just gone through an exercise in Nick Nicholas’ answer to How much of a […]

How much of a text by Aristotle or Procopius would speakers of modern Greek get?

By: | Post date: 2016-12-16 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Ancient Greek, Linguistics, Mediaeval Greek, Modern Greek

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.01.0055 Nick, what are you doing responding to this question?! You’re a PhD in Greek linguistics, with 18 years of working at the Thesaurus Linguae Graecae! Yes, but I never did formally study Ancient Greek. And I know enough linguistics that I can filter out stuff about Ancient Greek that I’m not supposed to know. […]

Does Greek present tense “continuous lifestyle” always mean that x always does y or can it mean x regularly does y for a specified period and stops?

By: | Post date: 2016-12-05 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Linguistics, Mediaeval Greek

The question is about Grammatical aspect in Koine Greek, as OP clarified. That’s OK, the behaviour of aspect in Greek has not essentially changed since antiquity. In fact, not that I’ve checked, but I’m struggling to think where it’s changed at all. x always does y is either continuous aspect (unbroken), or habitual aspect (does […]

Why is the carol “peace on earth and good will to all men”, when the Luke 2:14 says “to men of good will”?

By: | Post date: 2016-11-24 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Linguistics, Mediaeval Greek

https://www.quora.com/What-are-some-examples-of-the-worst-translations/answer/Zeibura-S-Kathau OP, but I’m answering a question raised elsewhere by Zeibura S. Kathau. Luke 2:14? The source of the confusion is a manuscript variant. Δόξα ἐν ὑψίστοις θεῷ καὶ ἐπὶ γῆς εἰρήνη ἐν ἀνθρώποις εὐδοκία[ς]. The version I as a Greek grew up with has “good will” in the nominative, εὐδοκία. “Peace on earth, among […]

In First Corinthians 13:5, what do you think Paul had in mind when he uses the word ‘unbecomingly’ to describe what love isn’t like?

By: | Post date: 2016-11-23 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Linguistics, Mediaeval Greek

Vote #1 Colin Jensen and Joe Fessenden, who have nailed it. To add a bit. It is the height of arrogance to fast forward to Modern Greek. But I’ll do so anyway. In Modern Greek, the adjective askhimos < askhēmōn means ‘ugly’. The etymology of askhēmōn is ‘un-shape-ish’. So unshapely, not with a nice shape. […]

If New Testament has κρεμάμενος “hanged” referring to Jesus, why has the word been rendered as σταυρωθείς, “crucified”?

By: | Post date: 2016-11-20 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Linguistics, Mediaeval Greek

Well, both do indeed occur in the New Testament. “Crucify” σταυρόω is the usual verb, but Galatians 3:13 uses ὅτι γέγραπται Ἐπικατάρατος πᾶς ὁ κρεμάμενος ἐπὶ ξύλου “for it is written: cursed is he who hangs from a pole.” Galatians 3:13 uses hangs from a pole to refer to Jesus, but in fact it is […]

How often did scribes have to copy an ancient text before the invention of printing in order for that text to survive throughout the centuries?

By: | Post date: 2016-11-18 | Comments: No Comments
Posted in categories: Literature, Mediaeval Greek, Other Languages

At an absolute minimum in Europe, four times. Each time there was a technological advance in book production, the superseded tech books were copied and discarded. Tech advances included: The introduction of papyrus The introduction of the codex The introduction of parchment The introduction of lowercase Answered 2016-11-18 [Originally posted on http://quora.com/How-often-did-scribes-have-to-copy-an-ancient-text-before-the-invention-of-printing-in-order-for-that-text-to-survive-throughout-the-centuries/answer/Nick-Nicholas-5]

  • Subscribe to Blog via Email

  • November 2024
    M T W T F S S
     123
    45678910
    11121314151617
    18192021222324
    252627282930